Slightly OT: is free software development indirectly subsidized?

[Bernhard Breinbauer]

On Saturday 03 February 2007 wrote anthony baldwin:
> On a list for translators, I´ve initiated a discussion of open source
> software in the industry.
>
> One gentleman made the following comment, and I am unsure what truth
> lies therein, nor how to respond.
> His comment:
>
> One question puzzles me: as far as I can tell, 'free software
> development' is indirectly subsidized by the universities or software
> companies that employ these developers during the day (so they can code
> for 'free' at night....)  Without these supporting institutions, free
> software would likely wither away, I think.  What do others think?

IMHO:
Surely you can look at it that way. But to be consequent, you also have to say 
everything you do in your spare time is subsidized by your employer. Hehe for 
example mowing your lawn is subsidized by your boss :-) .
I like to look at it the other way: I work to earn money, which I can use as I 
like in my spare time. For example some people like watching TV, some like 
traveling around, some do coding for free. 

bernhard

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